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alexsyd's avatar

Interesting take. Thanks. But I believe the mortgage-backed securities were put together with "liar loans" given to millions of "disadvantaged" Americans who couldn't afford them. Remember, the crisis was originally called the "subprime" but for some reason has been airbrushed out. Eventually, these millions of homeowners stopped making payments, and the cascade of loan failures began.

The real culprits were the politicians like Clinton and G.W. Bush and a host of other actors in the US.

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Liam Riley's avatar

I'm only half way through this article, but I have a few questions.

I don't quite follow the link of Basel as a cause with the plot showing the divergence Barclays assets on GAAP and Basel measures. Basel 1 was agreed in 1988 and law by 1992, yet the divergence of the two measures on the plot clearly has an acceleration point after 1998. 1998 was also the year of one of the most significant overhauls of UK financial regulation. Is the argument that it was the combination of Basel rules and this new regulatory structure that accelerated the divergence? If not, why did leveraging suddenly accelerate at this point and not earlier?

I can't find much on the state of capital requirements in Europe pre-Basel, but the generally stated purpose for that legislation was that many European banks were overly leveraged in the first place. If that's the case, doesn't this mean that Basel was more like a way point for an already existing problem?

I find your arguments on the centrality of Basel rules to the crisis convincing, but to me the timelines suggest Basel rules characterised the way the crisis played out more than triggered it per se.

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